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MBA Entrance Test Papers - Others
Article Index
IIT-D Part Time MBA
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Time: 10:00 to 12:00 Hours Maximum Marks: 120



Section-I : Verbal Communication

I. From lthe given options, identify the word or phrase which you think is nearest in meaning to the key word

1. Raiment

A. Remain

B. Entertainment

C. Clothing

D. Raindrops

2. Mien

A. Mean

B. Demeanour

C. Methodical

D. Catlike

3. Menagerie

A. Low-level work

B. Diverse Group

C. Pertaining to laborers

D. Archaic

4. Arcanum

A. Cranium

B. Mystery

C. Acidic

D. Arduous

5. Cormorant

A. Selfless

B. Huge

C. Greedy

D. Imitative

II. From the given choices, identify the word or phrase which you think is opposite in meaning to the key word

6. Censure

A. Dull

B. Star

C. Express approval

D. Prodigy

7. Recondite

A. Conducive

B. Simple to understand

C. Greedy

D. Not conducive

8. Susurration

A. Surrender

B. A whisper

C. Esurient

D. A loud noise

9. Argus-eyed

A. Extremely Careless

B. Watchful

C. Reticent

D. Agile

10. Irenic

A. Promoting conflict

B. Godly

C. Ironic

D. Containing Iron

III. Directions: The following passage is followed by five questions or unfinished statements about the passage, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing the statements. Choose the one you think fits best.

The glade was pear-shaped, roughly a hundred yards long and fifty yards wide, with a stagnant pool of rain-water in the center of it. Deer and other game used this pool as a drinking-place and wallow and, curious to see the tracks round it, I left the path, which skirted the left-hand side of the glade and passed close under a cliff of rock which extended up to the road. As I approached the pool I saw the pug-marks of the tigress in the soft earth at the edge of the water. She had approached the pool from the same direction as I had, and, evidently disturbed by me, had crossed the water and gone into the dense tree and scrub jungle on the right-hand side of the glade. A great chance lost, for had I kept as careful a look-out in front as I had behind I should have seen her before she saw me. However, though I had missed a chance, the advantages were now all on my side and distinctly in my favour.

The tigress had seen me, or she would not have crossed the pool and hurried for shelter, as her tracks showed she had done. Having seen me, she had also seen that I was alone, and watching me from cover as she undoubtedly was, she would assume I was going to the pool to drink as she had done. My movements up to this had been quite natural, and if I could continue to make her think I was unaware of her presence, she would possibly give me a second chance. Stooping down and keeping a very sharp look-out from under my hat, I coughed several times, splashed the water about, and then, moving very slowly and gathering dry sticks on the way, I went to the foot of the steep rock. Here I built a small fire, and putting my back to the rock lit a cigarette. By the time the cigarette had been smoked the fire had burnt out. I then lay down, and pillowing my head on my left arm placed the rifle on the ground with my finger on the trigger.

11. The author left the path because

A. He wanted to see the tracks round it.

B. He wanted to skirt the left-hand side of the glade

C. He did not want to disturb the deer and other animals which were drinking there

D. He wanted to see the tracks round the pool.

12. The tigress had gone into the jungle because

A. She wanted to cross the water.

B. She had seen the author coming.

C. She had approached the pool from the same direction as the author.

D. She had left her pug marks in the soft earth at the edge of the water.

13. The author did not see the tigress before she saw him because

A. He did not keep a careful look-out behind.

B. He was not aware of her presence near the pool.

C. He did not keep a careful look-out in front

D. He crossed the pool and disappeared into the jungle.

14. The author coughed and splashed the water in order to

A. Make the tigress believe that he was unaware of her presence.

B. Keep a sharp look-out

C. Make the tigress to move away from her hiding place.

D. Make the tigress think that the author was aware of her presence.

15. The author was expecting that

A. Because of his movements the tigress would disappear into the jungle.

B. The tigress would come out of her hiding place.

C. The deer and other animals would come to drink water at the pool.

D. He would see the pug-marks of the tigress again.

IV. From the four choices, identify the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

16. Some indulgent mothers ________ their children too much.

A. Petrify

B. Condone

C. Cosset

D. Admire

17. A poor copy of the monument was erected in the count yard and many unsuspecting travellers paid homage to that ________ master piece.

A. Ersatz

B. Bold

C. Placid

D. Redolent

18. The old lady’s eyes were clean and shining set deeply in her ________ face.

A. Acrimonious

B. Malodorous

C. Wiseacre

D. Wizened

19. She was well-dressed, obviously not a _________.

A. Queen

B. Socialite

C. Luminary

D. Mendicant

20. The young management graduates worked up some optimistic projections--with a ___________ that these were speculative and should of course be tested.

A. Conundrum

B. Copyright

C. Caveat

D. Hypothesis


V. Directions: The following passage is followed by five questions or unfinished statements about the passage, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing the statements. Choose the one you think fits best.

In the past century Irish painting has changed from a British-influenced lyrical tradition to an art that evokes the ruggedness and roots of an Irish Celtic past. At the turn of the twentieth century Irish painters, including notables Walter Frederick Osborne and Sir William Orpen, looked elsewhere for influence. Osborne's exposure to "plein air" painting deeply impacted his stylistic development; and Orpen allied himself with a group of English artists, while at the same time participated in the French avant-garde experiment, both as painter and teacher.

However, nationalist energies were beginning to coalesce, reviving interest in Irish culture— including Irish visual arts. Beatrice Elvery's Éire (1907), a landmark achievement, merged the devotional simplicity of fifteenth-century Italian painting with the iconography of Ireland's Celtic past, linking the history of Irish Catholicism with the still-nascent Irish republic. And, although also captivated by the French plein air school, Sir John Lavery invoked the mythology of his native land for a 1928 commission to paint the central figure for the bank note of the new Irish

Free State. Lavery chose as this figure Éire, with her arm on a Celtic harp, the national symbol of independent Ireland.

In Irish painting from about 1910, memories of Edwardian romanticism coexisted with a new sense of realism, exemplified by the paintings of Paul Henry and Seán Keating, a student of Orpen's. Realism also crept into the work of Edwardians Lavery and Orpen, both of whom made paintings depicting World War I, Lavery with a distanced Victorian nobility, Orpen closer to the front, revealing a more sinister and realistic vision. Meanwhile, counterpoint to the Edwardians

and realists came Jack B. Yeats, whose travels throughout the rugged and more authentically Irish West led him to depict subjects ranging from street scenes in Dublin to boxing matches and funerals. Fusing close observations of Irish life and icons with an Irish identity in a new way, Yeats changed the face of Irish painting and became the most important Irish artist of his century.

21. The author points out the coexistence of romanticism and realism most probably in order to show that

A. the transition in Irish painting from one predominant style to the other was not an abrupt one

B. Irish painters of the early twentieth century often combined elements of realism with those of romanticism into a single painting.

C. Irish painters of the early twentieth century tended to romanticize the harsh reality of war

D. for a time painters from each school influenced painters from the other school

22. Which of the following best explains the author's use of the word "counterpoint" in referring to Yeats?

A. Yeats reacted to the realism of his contemporary artists by invoking nineteenth century naturalism in his own painting style.

B. Yeats' paintings differed significantly in subject matter from those of his

contemporaries in Ireland.

C. Yeats built upon the realism painting tradition, elevating it to unprecedented artistic heights.

D. Yeats avoided religious and mythological themes in favor of mundane portrayals of Irish life.

23. With respect to which of the following painters does the passage provide LEAST support for the assertion that the painter was influenced by the contemporary art of France?

A. Walter Frederick Osborne

B. Sir William Orpen

C. Beatrice Elvery

D. Seán Keating

24. Which of the following is the most likely title of a longer article in which the passage might have appeared?

A. "20th Century Irish Masterpieces: A Coalescence of Painting Styles"

B. Who Deserves Credit for the Preeminence of Yeats among Irish Painters?"

C. "Realism vs. Romanticism: Ireland's Struggle for National Identity"

D. "Irish Paintings: Reflections of an Emerging Independent State"

VI. From the given choices, identify the word or phrase which you think is nearest in meaning to the given phrase/idiom.

25. An albatross around your neck

A. A medallion that is won through one’s own efforts

B. An expensive necklace

C. A self- created problem that hinders progress

D. A watch

26. Sail close to the wind

A. Take risks

B. Play safe

C. Go boating

D. Enjoy the breeze

27. Play the Devil’s Advocate

A. Support an argument with a lot of conviction

B. A lawyer who defends criminals

C. Present a counter argument without believing in it.

D. Respond in writing

28. Eat Crow

A. Eating Lunch

B. Admitting that one was wrong

C. Not accepting one’s fault

D. Being Clever

29. Vent your spleen

A. Get your stomach and spleen examined.

B. Make knowledgeable conversation about something

C. Release all the anger about something

D. Get a surgery performed.

30. Throw down the gauntlet

A. Accept defeat

B. Make others aware

C. Issue a challenge

D. Dress up for a formal occasion

< End of Verbal Communication Section >

Section II: Analytical / Logical Reasoning

Mark your response among A, B, C, D.

Directions for Questions 31-34

Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.

Four people of different states live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favourite drink. The following additional information is also known:

I. The Punjabi lives in the red house.

II. The Maharastrian drinks tea.

III. The Keralite lives in the first house on the left.

IV. In the second house from the left they drink milk.

V. The Keralite lives adjacent to blue house.

VI. The Bengali drinks fruit juice.

VII. Tea is drunk in the blue house.

VIII. The white house is to the right of the red house.

Q 31. Milk is drunk by

A. Keralite.

B. Punjabi.

C. Maharastrian.

D. None of the above.

Q 32. The Keralite drinks

A. Milk.

B. Cocoa.

C. Tea.

D. Fruit juice

Q 33. The color of the Keralite’s house is

A. Yellow.

B. White.

C. Blue.

D. Red.

Q 34. Which of the following is not true?

A. Milk is drunk in the red house.

B. Maharastrian lives in the blue house.

C. The Bengali lives in the corner house.

D. The Maharastrian lives next to the Bengali.

Directions for Questions 35-38

Each question has a pair of CAPITALISED words followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair.


A. Nimbus : Cloud

B. Instrument : Calibration

C. Aircraft : Jet

D. Climate : Rain


A. Book : Critic

B. Art : Connoisseur

C. Sports : Fan

D. Craft : Skill


A. Poverty : Plenty

B. Drip : Fluid

C. Camera : Flim

D. Training : Skill


A. Order : Chaos

B. Fair : Whimsical

C. Hope : Surprise

D. Proper : Improper

Question 39-40 are based on the following:

A farmer can plant only five different kind of vegetables: beans, cabbage, potato, carrot and tomato. Every year the farmer plants exactly three kinds of vegetables according to the following restrictions:

I. If the farmer plants cabbage, he also plants beans that year.

II. If the farmer plants potato in one year, he does not plant in the next year.

III. If in any year, the farmer plants no more than one of the vegetables he planted in the previous year.

Q 39. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for the farmer to plant in two successive years?

A. beans, cabbage, potato; cabbage, carrot, tomato

B. beans, carrot, tomato; beans, potato, carrot

C. cabbage, carrot, tomato; beans, potato, carrot

D. beans, carrot, tomato; beans, cabbage, potato

Q 40. If the farmer plants beans, carrot and potato in the first year, which of the following combinations must be planted in the third year?

A. beans, cabbage and potato

B. beans, cabbage and carrot

C. beans, potato and carrot

D. beans, carrot and tomato

Directions for Questions 41 - 43

The following questions have two statements. Select the assumption that is absolutely necessary so that the second statement can be interpreted from the first statement.

Q 41. Quality of education is high in India. Economic prosperity is an essential component to have quality of life.

A. Quality of life demands economic opportunities.

B. Economically rich people can avail better health care.

C. Education is free.

D. Education fetches high salaries.

Q 42. The U.S. used to rank at No. 1 position in competitiveness reports. The decline in the U.S. competitiveness is temporary.

A. The U.S. prosperity is technology-driven.

B. The sun never sets in the U.S. empire.

C. Most countries have significant reserves in U.S. dollars.

D. Massive imbalances (e.g. trade, fiscal) in U.S. have reached bottom.

Q 43. Many IIT students have excessively high IQ. Many corporations in India prefer students from less famous institutes for challenge projects of higher altitude.

A. Corporates in India are not very good at absorbing IIT students.

B. High IQ can not be sustained on challenge projects.

C. Attitude decides altitude.

D. MNC firms are at higher altitude.

Directions for Question 44 - 47

In the following questions statement(s) (i) and (ii) are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). You have to assume everything in the statement to be true even if they seem to be absurd or against the material truth or commonly known facts and then decide, which of the two conclusions logically follow.

Give answer:

A: if only conclusion (a) follows.

B: if only conclusion (b) follows.

C: if either (a) or (b) follows.

D: if neither (a) nor (b) follows.

Q 44. Statement

(i) Firms in India have more strength in instrumentation than nano-bio.

(ii) Firms from Japan plan to dominate in the game of instrumentation-driven nano-bio.


(a) Firms in Japan should not compete with firms in India in nano-bio.

(b) Indian firms are unlikely to win in game of instrumentation-driven nano-bio against firms from Japan.


Q 45. Statement:

It must be recognized that the analysis of society scientist cannot be expected to be

wholly free from biases derived from social milieu.


(a) Social scientists lack objectivity.

(b) Social milieu creates various types of biases in the minds of the people living in that society.


Q 46. Statement:

The dissimilarities between the problems of rural and urban development stand out

clearly when we compare the attitude of the government towards these fields.


(a) Government has more favorable attitude towards rural development than urban


(b) Government has more favorable attitude towards urban development than rural



Q 47. Statements:

(i) Authors are learned people.

(ii) Some doctors are authors.


(a) Some doctors are learned people.

(b) There are more learned people than doctors.


Directions for Question 48-50

In each of the following questions one statement is followed by two arguments (a) and (b) one supporting and the other against it. Mark answer:

A: if only argument (a) is strong.

B: if only argument (b) is strong.

C: if either argument (a) or (b) is strong.

D: if neither argument (a) or (b) is strong.

Q 48. Statement:

The educated people should work in villages.


(a) Yes-Because they can revolutionise agriculture and revamp rural atmosphere.

(b) No-The educated people should be employed in cities only because otherwise their education will go waste.


Q 49. Statement:

Should the strikes be banned legally in India?


(a) Yes-Because strikes hamper production and create artificial scarcity of necessary goods.

(b) No-Because the workers will lose right of expression and would be subjected to

managerial dictates.


Q 50. Statement:

Should the states be autonomous in India?


(a) Yes-India should have ‘Unity in Diversity’ in true sense of the term.

(b) No-India will have a weak centre with powerful states within the country.


Directions for Questions 51 - 58

Below given is a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately and decide upon the degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer:

A: The inference is definitely true, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

B: The inference is “probably true”, though not definitely true in light of the facts given.

C: The data is inadequate.

D: The inference is probably false, though not definitely false, in light of the facts given.


With productive population in large countries such as India and China Asia was a key centre of world. Industrial and other revolutions shifted the centre of gravity of world economy towards West in Europe and later in America. Japan created many world-class emerging industries of the time from steel, shipbuilding to rail-roads, automobile and electronics and achieved superior trade balance. After ICT, biotechnology and nanotechnology are the next emerging industries of future.

Q 51. The centre of gravity of world economy will again return to India, the centre of Asia.


Q 52. With firms like Honda and Toyota still rising, Japan was and will remain competitive in automobiles industry for few more decades.


Q 53. With strength in software, India will lead the world in ICT.


Q 54. India need to be competitive in several industries across the spectrum from automobiles to nanotechnology to have superior trade balance.


Q 55. China has become factory of world, but can not compete as well as India in knowledge industries such as biotech and nanotech.


Q 56. With so many countries vying for competitiveness in emerging industries, India should prepare well to compete successfully in nanotechnology.


Q 57. Trade balance for India in ICT is showing negative trend, India should shift rapidly into nanotech.


Q 58. Since China is so aggressive to lead the world and India being a soft-power, India should learn to form alliances to progress.


Directions for Questions 59-60

Each of the following problems consists of a question and two statements are labelled (1) and (2). You must decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question using the data and your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts. Choose the correct answer from A to D as per the following guidelines, and make the appropriate marking in the answer sheet.

A. if statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.

B. if statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.

C. if both statements (1) and (2) together sufficient to answer the question asked, but neither statement is alone sufficient.

D. if statements (1) and (2) together are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data are needed.

Q 59. Qutub is the tallest Minar in Delhi. Which is the tallest structure in India?

(1) Air India building is tallest building in India.

(2) Tallest structure in India is a building.


Q 60. All state capitals in a country are sea ports. Is city X a state capital?

(1) X has 4 museums

(2) X is a sea port


< End of Analytical / Logical Reasoning Section >

Section III: Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation

Answer Q 61 to 64 from the information given below in the diagram.

A= Food (25%)

B= Conveyance (12%)

C= Clothing (18%)

D= Miscellaneous (10)

E= Saving (Rest)

F= House Rent (15%)

61. If total monthly income of the family is Rs.3080/- how much amount is spent on clothing per month?

A. Rs.534

B. Rs.545

C. Rs.580

D. Rs.554

62. How much angle does the miscellaneous expenses sector make at the centre?

A. 60 degrees

B. 46 degrees

C. 36 degrees

D. 33 degrees

63. How much total expenses are incurred on food, clothing and conveyance every month?

A. Rs.1794

B. Rs.1684

C. Rs.1584

D. Rs.1694

64. How much saving per annum is made by the family?

A. Rs.7502

B. Rs.7382

C. Rs.7392

D. Rs.7902

65. A watch which gains 12 minute in a day is 12 minutes fast at 4.00 pm on Sunday. What will be the true time when the watch shows 4.00 pm on Wednesday?

A. 4.00 pm

B. 3.12 pm

C. 4.24 pm

D. 3.36 pm

66. A started business with Rs.12000. After 2 months B joined with Rs.15000, while after 4 months after commencement of business by A, C joined with Rs.20000. The profit was Rs.9080. What is the share of B?

A. 2000

B. 2800

C. 1280

D. 3000

Study the diagram and answer the questions 67-71 that follow

IIT-D MBA-2008-1.PNG

67. Graduates, hard working and honest rural population is indicated by

A. 3

B. 8

C. 9

D. 1

68. Rural, graduate people who are neither honest nor hard working and indicated by


B. 2

C. 4

D. 3

69. Which number indicates urban graduate people who are neither hard working nor honest?

A. 5

B. 9

C. 6

D. 7

70. People who are honest but not hardworking and do not live in villages are indicated by

A. 10

B. 9

C. 7

D. 8

71. People who are graduate and honest and live in villages, but are not hard working are represented by

A. 1

B. 6

C. 8

D. 9

72. I have a certain sum of money to be distributed among certain number of boys. If I give Rs.3 to each, I shall spend Rs.4 less but that if I give Rs.5 each, I shall need Rs.6 more. How much money do I have?

A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 23

73. If a man lose 4% by selling bananas at 12 a rupee. How many bananas should he sell for a rupee to gain 44%?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

74. The length of a ladder exactly equals the height of a wall. If the ladder is placed on a 2 feet tall stool placed 10 feet away from the wall then its tip can just touch the top of the wall. The height of the wall is

A. 15 ft

B. 26 ft

C. 28 ft

D. 32 ft.

75. Two positive integers differ by 5. The sum of their reciprocals is 9/14. Then one number is

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. None

76. A ship leaves on a long voyage. When it is 18 miles from the sea shore, a plane whose speed is 10 times that of the ship is sent to deliver a bomb on the ship. How far from the shore does the plane catch the ship?

A. 200 miles

B. 220 miles

C. 22 miles

D. 20 miles

77. In an office 1/3 of workers are women. 1/2 of the women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have children, what part of workers are without children?

A. 5/18

B. 7/18

C. 3/7

D. 11/18

78. An amount doubles itself at the end of 8 years with certain rate of simple interest. What will be the total simple interest on Rs 8,000 at that rate at the end of four years?

A. Data inadequate

B. Rs 2000

C. Rs 4000

D. Rs 8000

79. Two buses travel to a place at a speed of 95 kmph and 80 kmph respectively. If the second bus takes 3¾ hours more than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is

A. 1900 km

B. 1910 km

C. 1980 km

D. None of the above

80. In a firm A, B and C contribute as capital Rs 25000; Rs 35,000 and Rs 40,000

respectively. They agree to divide the profit in proportion to their capitals and to pay Rs 2,000 and Rs 3,000 as salary to B and C respectively for their services to the firm. The amount which A would get out of the net trading profit of Rs 20,000 is

A. Rs 7250

B. Rs 9000

C. Rs 3750

D. Rs 4000


Study the following diagrams and answer questions 81-83. Diagram `A’ represents a Bombay based pharmaceutical factory of large company. Diagram ‘B’ represents a Punjab based factory of the same company. Both the units are manufacturing certain types of diagrams.

IIT-D MBA-2008-2.PNG

81. Which type of medicines show the same percentage of production in both the Bombay and Punjab units of the company?

A. Antibiotic injection

B. Vitamin tablets

C. Vitamin and iron tonics

D. Pain killer

82. Work out tonnage of vitamin tablets produced both in Bombay and Punjab factories of the company, if 2% of total production amounts to 2.7 tonnes in each factory.

A. 66.4 tonnes

B. 64.8 tonnes

C. 64.4 tonnes

D. 64.6 tonnes

83. If 25% production at each factory amounts to 2000 cases, how many cases of pain killers are produced in both units of the company?

A. 1040 cases

B. 3250 cases

C. 2160 cases

D. 3200 cases

The graph below shows sales progression of company Y 1998 to 2002. After carefully studying the graph, answer the questions 84-86.

IIT-D MBA-2008-3.PNG

84. The total sales in 2002 when compared with 1998 is

A. 130%

B. 134%

C. 230%

D. 234%

85. The increase in sales between 2001 and 2002 is

A. 60%

B. 62%

C. 76%

D. 64%

86. The percentage drop in sales between 1998 and 1999 is

A. -95.6%

B. -4.0%

C. -4.6%

D. -4.4%

The statement given below is the receipts and expenditure of a firm manufacturing soaps and detergents. Study the data given in the statement and answer the following questions 87-89.

IIT-D MBA-2008-4.PNG

IIT-D MBA-2008-5.PNG

87. Approximately what fractions of the total annual expenditure of the firm was the average yearly combined expenditure on packing materials, marketing expenditure and general over-heads?


B. 1/3

C. 1/2

D. 2/3

88. If the income from the sale of toilet soap during the given year is x, the total income during the same period is about

A. x5

B. 5x

C. 0.5x

D. x2

89. What is the correlation between refunds of loans and the indirect manufacturing costs and pension funds?

A. There is no correlation

B. Both represent expenditure

C. Both are related to employees benefits

D. Both are equal in terms of percentage and total sum.

90. Equal weights of alloys X and Y which contain zinc and tin in the proportion of 8:3 and 6:5 respectively are melted to form a third alloy Z. Z contains zinc and tin in the proportion of

A. 3:4

B. 4:7

C. 4:3

D. 7:4

< End of Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation Section >

Section IV: Business Awareness

91. Which bank introduced the first ATM in India?


B. State Bank of India

C. Citibank

D. Bank of America

92. SSE Composite Index belongs to which of the following countries?

A. South Korea

B. Japan

C. Indonesia

D. China

93. Budgetary deficit does NOT take into account

A. revenue deficit

B. capital budget deficit

C. balance of payment deficit

D. interest payment on public debt

94. The rate of exchange at equilibrium is one that maintains

A. the balance between imports and exports

B. the balance of payments at equilibrium over a certain period.

C. the balance of payments at equilibrium with domestic deflationary policy.

D. satisfactory foreign exchange reserve at the disposal of the monetary authority.

95. What does SIM stand for in mobile phone industry?

A. Subscriber Identification and Membership

B. Subscriber Identification Module

C. Subscriber Identity Module

D. Subscriber Identity Management

96. Supply of money remaining the same, when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be

A. a fall in the level of prices

B. an increase in the rate of interest.

C. a decrease in the rate of interest.

D. an increase in the level of income and employment.

97. Which Indian business group has a joint venture with Mitsubishi for cars?

A. Tata

B. Birla

C. Reliance

D. Mahindra

98. Neutrality of money implies that a given increase in the money supply will

A. increase all prices in the same proportion.

B. increase all prices in different proportions.

C. decrease all prices in the same proportion.

D. not change prices at all.

99. Java the computer language was invented by


B. Microsoft

C. SUN Microsystems


100. Where M is money supply, i is rate of interest, and I is investment, the correct likely sequence would be:

A. M decrease, i goes down, I goes down, GNP goes down.

B. M decrease, i goes up, I goes down, GNP goes down.

C. M decrease, i goes up, I goes up, GNP goes up.

D. M goes up, i goes up, I goes up, GNP goes up.

101. Which French Bank was recently in the news for a $7.1 billion rogue trade fraud?

A. Barclays

B. Societe Generale

C. Credit Agricole

D. Banque de France

102. In a flexible exchange rate system, an increase in the domestic interest rate would tend to

A. improve the current account and worsen the capital account.

B. improve the current and capital accounts.

C. worsen both the accounts.

D. worsen the current account and improve the capital account.

103. Open market operations refer to

A. borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI.

B. Lending by commercial banks to the industry and trade.

C. Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI.

D. Deposit mobilization.

104. In India, the main source of national income is

A. Agriculture sector

B. Manufacturing sector

C. Services sector

D. Foreign sector

105. In which of the following situations should a country pursue a cheap monetary policy?

A. Balance of Trade is unfavorable.

B. Prices are rising.

C. Gold is likely to flow out of the country.

D. Budget deficit is high.

106. What is "Near money"?

A. Money held in local currency

B. Money held in foreign currency

C. Money that is easily convertible to cash

D. Money in the nearest bank.

107. Vodafone has entered the Indian mobile phone services market by acquiring a stake in

A. Spicetel

B. Idea

C. Hutchison Essar

D. Tata Teleservices

108. Which of the following asset management companies does not offer a Gold ETF in India?

A. UTI Mutual Fund

B. Kotak Mahindra

C. Benchmark Asset Management Company

D. State Bank of India

109. The MD of Pantaloon Retail India Limited is

A. Harish Biyani

B. Kishore Biyani

C. GopiKishan Biyani

D. Ved Prakash Arya

110. What is the full form of TRIP?

A. Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

B. Trade Related Intellectual Provisions

C. Trade Relations of Intellectual Property

D. Trade Relations in Intellectual Property

111. Which brand of clothing has the adline "Power dressing for the new millennium"?

A. Peter England

B. Arrow

C. Van Heusen

D. Louis Philippe

112. Which 5 Year Plan is currently going on?


B. X



113. Which of the following mergers has not taken place?

A. Deccan Kingfisher

B. Jet Sahara

C. Indian Airlines and Air India

D. Spicejet Indigo

114. The book “Fortune at the Bottom of the Pyramid” is written by

A. Deepak Jain

B. Kotler

C. C.K. Prahalad

D. Manmohan Singh

115. Who is the current RBI governor?

A. Montek S. Ahluwalia

B. Y. V. Reddy

C. Bimal Jalan

D. C. Rangarajan

116. How many companies are included in the NIFTY?

A. 15

B. 20

C. 30

D. 50

117. Which Indian industrialist became the first Indian to get the Wharton School Dean's Medal?

A. Ratan Tata

B. Dhirubhai Ambani

C. Mukesh Ambani

D. L N Mittal

118. CIPLA was set up by

A. P.R.S. Oberoi

B. Malvinder Singh

C. Khwaja Abdul Hamied

D. Dr. S. K. Burman

119. What is the name of the merged entity of Indian Airlines and Air India?

A. Indian

B. Indian Airlines

C. Air India

D. Indigo

120. Name the index which used to detect the Bullish or Bearish trend in the stock market.

A. Advance Decline Index



D. CNX 10

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